重庆市四区联考2022-2023学年高二英语下期学业质量调研抽测试题

重庆市四区联考2022-2023学年高二英语下期学业质量调研抽测试题本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回第I卷注意事项：1. 答第I卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考场号填写在答题卡上2. 选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号不能答在本试卷上，否则无效第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）做题时，先将答案标在试卷上录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）听下面5段对话每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题每段对话仅读一遍1. What is the weather like now?A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Cloudy.2. Why does the girl study harder?A. To get a toy car. B. To work as a model. C. To earn money for a car.3. Where are the speakers probably?A. At home. B. In a restaurant. C. In a supermarket.4. What did the adviser think of Mary’s report?A. It was acceptable.B. It needed improving. C. It went beyond his expectations.5. How does the woman like the man’s schedule? A. Too relaxing. B. Too realistic. C. Too stressful.第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）听下面5段对话或独白。

每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间每段对话或独白读两遍听第6段材料，回答第6至7题6. What is the conversation mainly about? A. Sandra’s foot. B. Cleaning the floor. C. House costs.7. Who is Brenda? A. Dave’s sister. B. Sandra’s boss. C. Dave’s house cleaner. 听第7段材料，回答第8至10题8. What does the man invite the woman to do？A. See a film. B. Dine together. C. Enjoy a concert.9. What is the probable job of the woman？A. She is a film star.B. She is a musician.C. She is a football player.10. When are the speakers going to meet？A. On Wednesday evening.B. On Thursday evening.C. On Friday evening. 听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. Why is Sammy anxious?A. He was attacked by a dog.B. He was bitten by a rabbit.C. He was beaten by a stranger.12. What time did the woman arrive?A. At 6:30 p.m. B. At 7:00 p.m. C. At 7:30 p.m.13. What do we know about the woman?A. She likes to be early. B. She had a rough day. C. She doesn’t like football.听第9段材料，回答第14至16题14. What did the man do before having the meal？A. He had a meeting. B. He attended a wedding.C. He held a party.15. What does the man like to drink best？A. Tomato juice. B. Apple tea. C. Lemon tea.16. What will the woman have？A. Two eggs and one piece of bread with cream.B. Tomato juice and pancakes with cheese.C. Coffee and pancakes with cream. 听下面一段独白，回答第17至20题。

17. How much weight was the woman last year?A. 30 pounds. B. 120 pounds. C. 150 pounds.18. Why did the woman tell others about her plan? A. To ask for tips. B. To show it off. C. To follow her goal.19. How did the woman receive the message?A. Through her phone. B. Through her children. C. Through her friends.20. What is the woman mainly talking about?A. How to live a long life. B. How to eat healthily. C. How to lose weight. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

AA sincere, heartfelt apology is a powerful step toward mending hurt feelings and finding a settlement. An improper apology, on the other hand, can be worse than none at all.1. “I’m sorry I said that, but I never would have if you hadn’t behaved the way you did.”We are hearing blame. “Look what you made me do.” This is not an apology for one’s behavior but actually a way to hold the other person responsible for one’s behavior. In other words, “You caused me to say this to you.” We are all responsible for our behavior, no matter what the other person says or does. A heartfelt apology is to recognize the pain we cause and own our behavior: “I’m sorry that I reacted the way I did and upset you.”  2. “I’m sorry if I upset you.”This is an example of a conditional apology that doesn’t truly admit any regret or personal responsibility. By using the word “if,” you are municating that the problem isn’t really about what you did, but is about how the person reacted to what you did instead. Basically, this type of “non-apology” places the blame back onto the person it’s directed at. Simply remove the word “if,” and your apology can take on a whole new meaning: “I’m sorry I upset you. I will make sure to be more considerate and careful with my words in the future.” 3. “I may have done this, but you did that!”Try to avoid keeping score and bringing up times when the other person was in the wrong. An apology is about you admitting the wrongfulness of your own actions and making good; it is not about pointing fingers at other people as a way to defend your actions. 21. The first apology actually means, “I’m sorry but ______”. A. I didn’t mean so B. I am to blame C. it was not my fault D. I didn’t say anything wrong22. Who is to blame in Apology 2 without “if”? A. The listener. B. The speaker. C. A third person. D. Both the speaker and listener. 23. The last paragraph tells us that if somebody is in the wrong, you should ______. A. forgive him B. scold him C. fort him D. stop himB Bill Keaggy likes collecting things — we might even call him a pulsive (he can’t stop or control what he does) collector. His latest collecting habit is earning him some unusual fame and, possibly, a little money. In 1997, Bill Keaggy picked up a thrown-away shopping list at a St Louis supermarket. He said it was interesting because it gave him an attractive view into a stranger’s life. Keaggy was interested. He decided to pick grocery lists up wherever he found them. In xx, Keaggy posted his collection of about 40 lists on the Internet. In xx the New York Times Magazine wrote an article about him and his shopping list collection. By then he had collected about 500 lists. In early xx, he started working on a book about the lost lists. When the book was published — in May xx — he had 1,600 lists on his website and thousands more that needed to be posted. Keaggy’s book, Milk Eggs Vodka: Shopping Lists Lost and Found, includes about 300 of the best lists — the funniest, saddest, strangest, unhealthiest and more. It is a strange, interesting and funny look at other peoples’ thrown-away shopping lists. Keaggy says he learns a lot by reading the lists. He’s surprised by how many people like onions. And he’s noticed that a lot of people have trouble spelling. Mayonnaise (蛋黄酱) is always a problem — as are bananas, anchovies(凤尾鱼) and yogurt. But even mon words — rost befe (roast beef) buter (butter) burd fude (bird food), krakers (crackers), londri sope (laundry soap), and birfday kard (birthday card) — can cause trouble.24. What is Bill Keaggy’s hobby? A. Earning fame. B. Learning things. C. Making money. D. Collecting things.25. What interested Bill Keaggy in 1997? A. Picking up shopping lists. B. Getting to know others’ life. C. Looking into different life views. D. Doing grocery shopping.26. What can we learn by reading Milk Eggs Vodka: Grocery Lists Lost and Found? A. Different life styles. B. Different worldviews. C. Different life attitudes. D. Different shopping channels. 27. By reading the lists, the author found the problem that many people ______. A. like onions B. misspell words C. are meat-eaters D. are trouble-makersC If you read and listen to two articles every day, your reading and listening skills can improve fast. You can learn quickly and after some time you will not have to translate into your own language. You will simply understand. Why should you do this?When you listen to people in your native language, you do not translate. You simply understand. The same has to be in English. When you learn English, you have to learn the whole sentences in context. Students, who translate English texts, do exercises and do tests, are very good at translating, doing exercises and doing tests, but they have problems with understanding English in real life. In real life, nobody waits for your translation. People usually use simple English when they speak but they use it fast. You have to understand with no translation to your native language. If you translate, you cannot be part of munication because you are thinking about the language too much. You also have to hear every new word 5 to 10 times if you want to remember it. That’s why we use the same words in one level. It is important to go step by step, and read and listen to words which are used in English often. This is what we do with our short news. Level 1 has the 1000 most important words, Level 2, xx and Level 3, 3000.So, if you want to understand English fast and learn fast, read two articles or more a day. We will help you learn English fast and understand it with easy English words. When you use this website every day, you can learn 3000 words which you need for munication with anybody in English. 28. With the first paragraph, the author intends to ______. A. attract the readers B. persuade the readers C. challenge the readers D. question the readers29. What does the author suggest is the best way to learn English? A. By translating. B. By doing exercises. C. By doing tests. D. By using it in real life.30. According to the passage, you can memorize a new word by meeting it ______. A. by chance B. for many times C. at the right time D. in a proper way31. What’s the purpose of this passage? A. To explain why to learn English. B. To offer help to English learners. C. To advertise an English-learning website. D. To show how to improve one’s English.D Speak to anyone who has worked for the United States Postal Service and they’ll tell you that a lot of strange things have been sent in the mail. Perhaps the strangest were children. In 1913, the U.S. Post Office announced that it would begin a service called “parcel post” to send items that were too big to fit into an envelope. According to post office policy(政策) at the time, the only living things that could be sent were bees and bugs. However, it’s human nature to push the envelope, so people started sending all types of things. In 1914, the first child was sent using parcel post. This child and all of the others sent during this period were not packed in boxes. Instead, most of them had mailing addresses and stamps sewed or pinned to the children’s clothing. At that time, the weight limit for mailed packages(邮资) was 50 pounds, so as long as the children weighed less than that, their parents thought it was worth a try. Why did parents mail their children? Postage was much cheaper than buying a train ticket. Some of the mailed children either lived or had relatives in remote areas. The only people who visited these remote places every day was the mail carriers, so the child could quickly and reliably be delivered. Many traveled only short distances. The longest trip was taken by a six-year-old girl sent by her mother in Florida to her father’s home in Virginia, about an 800-mile journey. Little Edna was just under 50 pounds and cost 15 cents in postage, about $3.85 in today’s dollars.Mailing children was not a mon practice, but there were some well-publicized cases. In 1920, the post office finally officially stopped it. 32. What does the underlined part “push the envelope” in Paragraph 3 refer to?A. Make larger envelopes.B. Do something against nature.C. Deal with something difficult.D. Expand the normal limits of something. 33. Which of the following is true of the child parcel post? A. Children were mostly mailed in boxes. B. Many child parcels traveled long distances. C. Children less than 50 pounds could be mailed. D. It was safer for children to be mailed than take a train.34. How long did the child parcel post last? A. One year. B. Two years. C. Five years. D. Six years.35. What is the best title for the text? A. Strange Post Service --- Mailing Children B. An Unusual Practice --- Mailing Animals C. The Strange Postage in the United States D. A Cheap Way to Travel in the United States第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。

选项中有两项为多余选项Don’t Miss Your Airline Flight We had a question this week from Jacek in Poland about how to pronounce airline flights numbers. The flight number is the number that each plane trip is given, and is usually two, three, or four digits (数字) in the United States. 36 , for example, I might take Northwest Flight 304. “304” is the number of the flight; “Northwest” is the name of the airline. While in many cases you could pronounce this number “three hundred and four”, that is not how you would pronounce it in the context of a flight number. In other words, if you’re at the airport and listening for an announcement for your flight number, you will not hear them say “three hundred and four”. 37 : If it is a two-digit flight number, we pronounce it as a “regular” number. 38 . It is also possible to use the individual numbers — “three four”. 39 . So, Flight 304 would be pronounced “three zero four”. You would not say “three hundred and four”. For four-digit flight numbers there are two possibilities. 40 . This can be pronounced “twenty-five sixty-seven”, grouping the numbers two by two, or it can be pronounced using the individual numbers “two five six seven”. Again, we would not say “two thousand five hundred and sixty-seven”. So listen carefully when you’re at the airport. We don’t want you to miss your flight.A. Now let’s have a look at this ruleB. Let’s take the example of Flight 2567C. If I fly from Los Angeles to MinneapolisD. The following are some other examplesE. So flight 34 would be pronounced “thirty-four” F. Here are the rules for pronouncing numbers at the airportG. For three-digit flight numbers, we pronounce the individual numbers only第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

We bought my kids two beautiful, white pet parrots which would whistle all through the day. Surely, we had a big 41 for them with toys, and a mirror, plus food and water dishes. We couldn’t let them 42 in the house because of our dogs and cats, but they seemed content in their cage or 43 I thought.One day in spring when the sun was 44 the earth and the air had turned warm, I cracked the window to 45 the breeze. The songs of dozens of different birds filled the air and our two parrots 46 with excitement. I went over to their cage to 47 their water, but as soon as I opened the door one of them flew out and headed for the 48 . He banged into the glass, fell over onto the sofa, struggled 49 and then started to fly around the living room. The cats ran after him, hoping for a quick 50 . The kids screamed and I rushed to save him. It took several minutes to stop the 51 from catching the bird, and get him 52 back in his cage. After that day, however, I felt a bit 53 for my parrots. I knew that no matter how pleasant their cage was they still intended to 54 .Many of us live in cages of our own making. We close our minds, lock away our hearts, and 55 our lives. We 56 to see the love that life holds for us and the greatness that lies within us. We sit in our 57 day after day and never dare to once open the door. I don’t want to waste my days sitting 58 in a cage. 59 I determine to fly through the sky on wings of kindness and joy. Don’t stay 60 in your own cage. Let yourself fly!41. A. room B. cage C. pool D. court42. A. eat B. sing C. appear D. loose43. A. more B. else C. so D. rather44. A. awakening B. cooling C. melting D. freezing45. A. turn in B. let in C. bring in D. get in46. A. breathed B. whistled C. screamed D. cried47. A. fetch B. drink C. replace D. collect48. A. window B. door C. table D. sofa49. A. back up B. across from C. upside down D. inside out50. A. response B. meal C. achievement D. oute51.A. parrots B. dogs C. kids D. cats52. A. fortunately B. slowly C. cruelly D. safely53. A. grateful B. responsible C. sorry D. angry54. A. stay B. admit C. struggle D. fly55. A. enjoy B. enrich C. limit D. shorten56. A. refuse B. volunteer C. hesitate D. pretend57. A. seats B. corners C. cells D. couches58. A. excited B. focused C. ignored D. bored59. A. And B. Where C. But D. Why60. A. struck B. stuck C. relaxed D. operated第II卷注意：将答案答写在答题卡上。

写在本试卷上无效第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节， 满分45分）第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式It’s Halloween and you’re watching your favorite horror film today. Can you hear it? It’s the noise of 61 old door, a sharp scream, the sound of thunder. These are all sounds you may hear in popular horror movies 62 (thank) to Jack Foley. Jack Foley (1891-1967) became well known and 63 (remember) for the film industry by developing techniques for many popular sound effects, of which he is 64 (well) known for including environmental sounds into films. Before Jack Foley’s techniques were invented, films usually used pre-recorded sounds, which 65 (add) later. But Foley changed this by creating the sounds in real time. The sounds could include anything from a telephone ring, footsteps to the sound of 66 (cloth) as people walk. The sound effects are intended to improve the film, 67 (make) it feel more realistic. Without those sound effects, films may feel too quiet and even 68 (fortable) for viewers. Foley effects are especially important when films are dubbed (配音) 69 another language, because when the dubbing replaces the original language, 70 also replaces all other sounds. As a result, those sounds must be added back in with each dubbed version(版本). 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。

文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词删除：把多余的词用斜线( \ )划掉修改：在错的词下一横线，并在该词下面写修改后的词注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分Once, my parents were away on the business and I had to looked after myself for two days. The first evening I was a little scaring, so I turned on all the lights. I actually keep them on the whole night, when finally put me at ease. For fear getting up late the next morning, I put three alarm clocks near my bed and set the alarm respectively at 6: 00, 6:10, and 6: 15. To prove I could take good care of me, I washed my own clothes the next day, because I could wait for Mum to do it. I really felt proudly of myself.第二节 书面表达（满分25分）假如你是李华，希望通过暑期学习在英语上取得更大进步，请用英语给你的外教Mike写封邮件，咨询英语学习的相关情况。

邮件内容包括：● 描述自己在英语学习上的困惑；● 听取外教对英语学习的建议；● 了解下学期的学习内容注意：1. 词数100左右； 2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯； 3. 开头和结语已为你写好Dear Mike,__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________Yours, Li Huaxx学年下期高中学业质量调研抽测高二英语 参考答案第一部分 听力（共两节，每小题1.5 分，满分30 分）1-5 ACBBC 6-10 BAABC 11-15 ABCAB 16-20 BCCAC第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40 分）第一节（共 15 小题；每小题2 分，满分30 分）21–25 CBADB 26–30 ABADB 31–35 CDCDA第二节（共5 小题；每小题2 分，满分10 分）36–40 CFEGB第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45 分）第一节（共 20 小题；每小题1.5 分，满分30 分）41-45 BDCAB 46-50 BCAAB 51-55 DDC。